2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: 00M-650
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Jazz automatically collects data from development artifacts and activities and turns it into useful
information.
What kind of information can be delivered to project managers?
A. Strategic information on how requirements meet business objectives.
B. Actual project expenses vs. budget tracking.
C. Complex compliance requirements.
D. Objective measurements of the projects progress and application quality.
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Rational recommends an incremental approach to enterprise modernization. What aspects of IT
are most important when a client is building a modernization plan.?
A. Knowledge, determination, and planning.
B. Assets, people, teams and infrastructure.
C. Program and project management and validation.
D. Integration of business process management procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can compilers help clients optimize their infrastructure and defer capital expenditures? Newer
compilers
A. can leverage the latest processor enhancements
B. integrate more effectively with security offerings to exploit use of the web
C. lower cost of deployment
D. enable integration of globally developed assets
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-571
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 287 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 An item set is required to generate data records. What are two of the records? (Choose two.)
A. People
B. Assets
C. Locations
D. Item Master
E. Organizations
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.3 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.4 What happens when the Rolling Appender reaches the file size limit?
A. The current file is deleted and a new file is created
B. The current file is renamed and a new file is created.
C. The new log statements overwrite the older log on the same file.
D. The current file is moved into the /maximo/logfile/archive directory and a new file is created
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which property prints a stack trace for fetch results?
A. mxe.db.fetchStack
B. mxe.db.fetchResult
C. mxe.db.fetchStackLogLimit
D. mxe.db.fetchResultLogLimit
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Conditional Expression Manager is accessed through which system module?
A. Security
B. Integration
C. Administration
D. System Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two modifications can be made to the user interface of a selected application using the
Application Designer? (Choose two.)
A. add values to a domain
B. add a tab to an application
C. add an attribute to an object
D. move a field within an application
E. change the data type of an attribute
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select Action menu
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement explains the relationship of an E-audit fitter to the Database Configuration application?
A. Using the Database Configuration application allows the creation of E-audit filters for main objects only.
B. The type of information that requires these E-audit filters can be refined by using the E-audit filter on
the Audit section of the Object tab within the Database Configuration application.
C. Included in the Database Configuration application is an action item called Enable E-audit Filter which
allows the selection of the appropriate auditing requirements for a given database object
D. E-Audit filters are created for database objects in the Audit application and enabled using the E-audit
filter selection dialog on each database object within the Database Configuration application.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-R25
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C" to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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NO.10 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N04
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Order Mgmt Technical Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the approximate number of public APIs the IBM Sterling Platform has?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
Answer: B

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NO.2 An Order can contain Order lines from:
A. Single channel , Single brand
B. Single channel , Multiple brand
C. Multiple channel , Multiple brand
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How is the selection of a Warehouse or distribution centre or Store configured if not specified during
order creation.?
A. Scheduling rules
B. Sourcing rules
C. Resource pool
D. Available to promise rules.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-916
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Forms 4 - Form Design and Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following components must be installed when using IBM Forms with Workflow?
A.IBM Forms Server
B.Tivoli Access Manager
C.Lotus Quickr
D.WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which XForms item is used to define a table?
A.xforms:group
B.xforms:table
C.xforms:repeat
D.xforms:select
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order to use Relative Positioning to position object B below object A, which of the following MUST
be true?
A.Object A and Object B must either both be XFDL items, or both be XForms items.
B.Object B is inside the same xforms:pane as Object A.
C.Object B appears further down the page (not directly below) than Object A.
D.Object B appears below Object A in the Form's build order.
Answer: D

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NO.4 There are many ways to use data from an external database in a workflow to pre-populate a form (on
form load).Each of the following is true, EXCEPT which one?
A.Build a SQL statement using the included point-and-click SQL builder tool in the Workflow Designer.
B.Create a setthat defines database access parameters.Once done, the data set outputs can be mapped
to the appropriate fields onCreate a setthat defines database access parameters.Once done, the data set
outputs can be mapped to the appropriate fields onthe form.
C.Enter a SQL statement by selecting theEnter SQL Manuallybutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.Enter
a SQL statement by selectingEnter SQL Manuallybutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.
D.Import a .SQL file by selecting theImport SQL Filebutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.Import a .SQL
file by selecting theImport SQL Filebutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Mark is in the Properties window for a field.He wants to select a value for the "texttype" property.Which
of the following is a valid selection?
A.xml/xforms
B.xml/xfdl
C.text/html
D.text/rtf
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a valid XFDL data type?
A.currency
B.integer
C.float
D.negativeInteger
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which document repository does IBM Forms Server with Workflow integrate with out-of-the-box?
A.IBM DB2 Content Manager
B.IBM Web Content Manager
C.IBM Lotus Quickr
D.FileNet Content Manager
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding XML is TRUE?
A.All XML elements must be properly closed.
B.XML documents must have a DTD (Document Type Definition) file.
C.All XML elements must be lower case.
D.XML tags are not case sensitive.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is a valid XPath query using an axis?
A.instance('widgets')/widget[parent:widget != 'Gadget']
B.instance('entries')/entry[not(author = preceding-sibling::entry/author)]
C.instance('people')/person[position() > 5 and position() < 15]
D.concat(../name, ' ', ../desc, ' ', )
Answer: B

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NO.10 Complete the following statement.The artifact created in the IBM Forms Designer is:
A.A dynamic PDF document.
B.An XML document that conforms to the XFDL schema.
C.An XML document with embedded Javascript if HTML extensions were used.
D.An XML document or an HTML document depending on the rendering mode that was defined.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Jane is trying to relatively align item B to be below item A, but she notices that this option is not
available.Why can't she use the relative positioning option?
A.She cannot use relative positioning because Item B precedes Item A in build order.
B.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A precedes Item B in build order.
C.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A and Item B have the same build order.
D.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A and item B have the same build priority.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Charlie has been tasked with creating a dropdown menu whose choices are dependent on the selection
of another dropdown on the form.He has created the following XPath query in the dropdown's nodeset:
What does the function current() do?
A.Returns the current element.
B.Returns the id of the current node.
C.Returns the context back to the "Generated" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
D.Returns the context back to the "frozenTreatsData" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
Answer: C

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NO.13 All of the following are valid methods of using a schema with IBM Forms, EXCEPT which one?
A.Embed schema directly in an XForms instance.
B.Reference external schema on local file system.
C.Embed schema directly in an XForms model.
D.Reference external schema within the Viewer's schema directory.
E.Reference external schema on the internet.
Answer: A

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NO.14 How are the build order and tab order related?
A.The tab order is always the same as the build order.
B.The build order defines the default tab order.
C.They are not related.
D.The tab order is never the same as the build order.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Jane is given an XML schema by her company's IT department, and is asked to build an IBM Form that
captures data according to that schema.How can Jane build the form?
A.IBM Forms does not support schemas, so this is not possible.
B.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane can drag and drop the schema onto her form page.The Designer
automatically creates the appropriate UIitems according to what was specified in the schema.
C.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane embeds the schema into her form, creates an instance of that
schema, then drags and drops from theinstance onto the form.The Designer then creates the appropriate
UI items according to what was specified in the schema.
D.Jane has to use another tool to create an XML instance of the schema.She adds the XML instance to
her form using IBM Forms Designer, thendrags and drops from the instance onto the form.The Designer
then creates the appropriate UI items according to what was specified in theschema.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-780
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex System Sales V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer is looking to deploy applications quickly and more consistently for their user community.
Faster time-to-value of the applications takes out the manual steps and automating delivery. Which
attribute of the PureFlex address this requirement.?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer needs an infrastructure for AIX and Windows application servers with supporting storage
and networking. The customer is not concerned about high availability. Which of the following is the
minimal solution that meets this need?
A. PureFlex Express
B. PureFlex Standard
C. PureFlex Enterprise
D. Flex BTO
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following PureFlex attributes leverages the expertise and best practices from the industry
to intelligently tune and manage environments and leverages cloud while ensuring mission critical
reliability?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: B

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NO.4 A PureFlex sales professional needs to select the best PureFlex Fibre Channel switch and mezzanine
card options for connecting a new PureFlex solution to an existing SAN and storage system. Which of the
following are the best two resources for this need?
A. Techline or Distributor
B. Competeline or Supportline
C. Briefing Center or Competeline
D. Distributor or Supportline
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is preparing to move their data and applications to a cloud environment. They are going to
use a provider's servers, storage and network resources, but will continue to manage the environment
themselves. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Storage as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-575
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.8 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.19 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.20 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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NO.4 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.5 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N14
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.3 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.4 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New, Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which section within Deployment Manager client would the user expand upon to see all folders and
objects that she is authorized to view?
A. Submitted Jobs
B. Content Repository
C. Resource Definitions
D. Repository Insight
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received a version
update message.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer created a parallel C&DS installation on a separate server, using a copy of the production
repository database. She can login to the repository, objects are being displayed, but most jobs fail to run
and cannot be edited. What could be a likely cause?
A. During the installation, the customer chose to Discard Existing Data data rather than Preserve Existing
Data.
B. Application server has not been started.
C. The save/restore process only migrated part of the content repository data.
D. Additional packages, existing in the production environment, have not been reinstalled after installation
of the parallel environment.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N23
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureApplication System Technical Sales Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine tuning
for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been implemented
modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the following is
NOT true?
A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor
B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time
C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages
D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own
Answer: D

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NO.2 The IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent for IBM PureApplication System provides information about
deployments when which the following is true?
A. The agent is running internal to the system
B. The agent is running external to the system
C. The agent is running either internal or external to the system
D. The agent does not provide deployment information
Answer: B

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NO.3 What hardware component is NOT included with IBM PureApplication System?
A. Power Distribution Units (PDUs)
B. Top of Rack Switches
C. Uninterruptable Power Supplies (UPS)
D. Storage Controllers
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are available administration interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.)
A. Web Console
B. Command line tool
C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs
D. Eclipse based plug-in
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor.
What can you deduce from it? (Choose three.)
A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted
B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order
C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint
D. The DB2 part has to start first
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with IBM
PureApplication System, does one of the following:
A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages
between components
B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD
C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the
pattern
D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different scenarios:
1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable 2.Production where
workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a scaling policy to
dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM
PureApplication System to accomplish this task?
A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one
B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual
application
C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and
policies accordingly
D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the
production scenario
Answer: C

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NO.8 When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration
parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process?
A. cbscript.json
B. config.sh
C. virtualimage.properties
D. appmodel.json
Answer: A

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NO.9 The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM
PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.)
A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console
B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support
C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE
D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 An administrator on IBM PureApplication System wants to delegate his current role for catalog
content, virtual instances, and pattern types to another user. Which of the following settings would
the administrator grant?
A. Cloud administration
B. Workload resource administration
C. Hardware administration
D. Security administration
Answer: B

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