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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.4 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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NO.6 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.7 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.8 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.11 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.14 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.15 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-130
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator needs to review several Symantec Management Console reports daily and would like
to have them in a single view. How can the reports be combined into a single view?
A. create a custom dashboard that merges the reports
B. create a custom portal page that displays each of the reports as web parts
C. export the reports and import them into one custom folder
D. link each of the reports to a single custom sub-menu item
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which policies run on Notification Server and are not concerned with agent activity on managed
computers?
A. Automation policies
B. Target-based policies
C. User-based policies
D. Filter-based policies
Answer: A

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NO.4 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by prompting Altiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Under which menu option are filters located in the Symantec Management Console?
A. Manage
B. Settings
C. Actions
D. Home
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Symantec recommended method for a Service Desk agent to use to install the Altiris Agent
when visiting a user's cubicle?
A. Manual Pull
B. Manual Push
C. Scheduled Push
D. Agent Upgrade Policy
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.9 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers. Which menu item should the
administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two services can a Site Server provide? (Select two.)
A. Package Service
B. OAB Service
C. Task Service
D. AEXSVC Service
E. Replication Service
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.13 How long are User-based policies cached on a managed computer?
A. one week
B. one month
C. two weeks
D. two months
Answer: A

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NO.14 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.15 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a properly configured middleware computer known as?
A. Task Service
B. Subnet Server
C. Site Server
D. Package Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory.
Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this
computer.? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent for Windows - Install policy
B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter
C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule
D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target
E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.20 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-119
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution tracks the installations of an application and how
often the application is used?
A. Application Management Solution
B. Deployment Solution
C. Application Metering Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must be done after a managed computer has been patched?
A. Check the Software Update Package Integrity task.
B. Run a Software Inventory task.
C. Run a Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task.
D. Update the Agent Configuration policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two Software Update Plug-in responsibilities? (Select two.)
A. gathers an inventory on all installed software and their associated service pack level
B. sends execution results of all software installed to the Notification Server
C .gathers specific inventory on supported operating systems, applications, and the associated service
pack level
D. sends execution results of applied software bulletins to the Notification Server
E. notifies users before a Managed Delivery policy executes
Answer: CD

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NO.4 An inventory policy is set to run weekly at 18:00 on Wednesdays and is present on all computers.
However, a user shuts down a laptop right after the inventory starts at 18:00 and turns it on the next
morning at 08:00. When will the inventory run?
A. Thursday morning at 08:00
B. next Wednesday evening at 18:00
C. Thursday evening at 18:00
D. never
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without
preconfigured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the
necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The PXE Configuration is
set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed?
A. Use Ghost Solution Suite to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network.
B. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task.
C. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging.
D. Configure PXE to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new
systems.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company is planning an In-Place Migration to Windows 7. They use PC Transplant to migrate the
personality. Which option will help reduce the network traffic when restoring the image.?
A. use File Preservation
B. use a higher compression
C. use unicast
D. deploy the OS without applications
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution denies the usage of applications on the network?
A. Software Management Solution
B. Application Metering Solution
C. Application Management Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.9 When reviewing compliance reports for the Microsoft products, the system administrator notices that
the data and bulletins have remained unchanged for two weeks. What should the administrator check to
address this issue?
A. Revise Software Update task
B. Import Patch Data for Microsoft policy
C. Patch Management Import task
D. Microsoft Compliance Update policy
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two operating systems can be managed using pcAnywhere? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. iOS
C. Android
D. Mac E.Unix
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which configuration step should be completed before a computer image can be sent to a managed
computer without an existing operating system installed on its hard drive?
A. create preboot configurations
B. install an operating system on the hard drive and install the applicable agents
C. configure predefined computers
D. configure initial deployment
Answer: A

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NO.12 In which area of the Symantec Management Console can a system administrator specify which users
have access to WMI, AMT, DASH, and other management technologies?
A. Credentials Management
B. Credential Access Manager
C. Security Role Manager
D. Out-of-Band Management
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1?
A. Help Desk Solution
B. Discovery Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Symantec System Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Software Update Policy Wizard is used to create the Patch Management policy, which is
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systems?
A. For the selected operating systems, delete the software bulletin that has been selected for installation.
B. For the selected operating systems, deselect the software bulletin that has been selected for
installation.
C. For the selected operating systems, disable the software policy.
D. For the selected operating systems, remove the software policy.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-085
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)
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NO.1 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.4 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.5 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.6 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.14 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix )
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NO.1 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.2 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.4 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.12 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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NO.4 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

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NO.6 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 510-025
Exam Name: Sybase (Adaptive Server Enterprise 15.0 Administrator Associate Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which system database controls the behavior of distributed transactions?
A.master
B.sybsecurity
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: c

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true regarding procedure cache size? (Choose 3)
A.Procedure cache size is specified as percentage of the available memory.
B.Procedure cache size is specified as absolute value of the available memory.
C.Procedure cache size is a static parameter.
D.Procedure cache size is a dynamic parameter.
E.Procedure cache size is specified in units of logical pages (2, 4, 8, or 16K).
F.Procedure cache size is specified in units of 2k pages.X
Answer: bdf

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NO.3 Which command can be used with "static options" to list all the static server configuration options?
A.sp_configure
B.sp_helpconfig
C.sp_monitorconfig
D.sp_poolconfig
E.sp_dboption
Answer: b

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NO.4 Which commands can be used to specify the number of histogram steps in systatistics? (Choose 2)
A.create index
B.optdiag
C.update statistics
D.reorg
E.sp_modifystats
Answer: ac

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NO.5 Cursors can now be declared as which of the following? (Choose 4)
A. scrollable
B. forward_only
C. backward_only
D. non-scrollable
E. insensitive
F. semi-sensitive
Answer: adef

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NO.6 Which system database is used to store distributed transaction management data?
A.sybsystemprocs
B.model
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsecurity
Answer: c

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NO.7 Which of the following databases are required for an Adaptive Server installation? (Choose 2)
A.sybsyntax
B.sybsystemdb
C.sybmgmtdb
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsytemprocs
F.dbccdb
Answer: be

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NO.8 During the installation, which of the following databases are created on the master device? (Choose 2)
A.dbccdb
B.model
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: be

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NO.9 Which of the following system databases will be built during an ASE installation? (Choose 4)
A.master
B.model
C.sybsyntax
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsystemdb
F.sybsystemprocs
Answer: abef

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NO.10 Which of the following are true about using the load database command?(Choose 3)
A.the database must be at least as large as the size of the database dump
B.the database must have been created with the for load option
C.the database must be exactly the same size as the database dump
D.the database must not be in use
E.the database need not exist because load database will create the database
F.the database must not be marked as suspect
Answer: adf

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NO.11 Which alter table clause will change an APL table to allow row level locking?
A.lock datarows
B.lock datapages
C.lock allpages
D.with fillfactor = 1
Answer: a

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NO.12 What are the partition strategies that allow you to add partitions using alter table? (Choose 2)
A.hash
B.list
C.range
D.round robin
Answer: bc

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NO.13 Given that the following set of commands are executed in a 2k server:
sp_cacheconfig mycache, 100M,
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 50M, 4K
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 10M, 16K, 4K
go
Which of the following are TRUE? (Choose 2)
A. mycache is 40M
B.4K buffer pool is 50M
C.4k buffer pool is 40M
D.2K buffer pool is 50M
E.no 2K buffer pool
Answer: cd

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NO.14 If a transaction places an update lock on a data page, what type of lock will a second transaction get if
it attempts to read the data using a SELECT statement?
A.Another UPDATE lock
B.SHARED lock
C.EXCLUSIVE lock
D.No lock is placed as process will be blocked
Answer: b

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NO.15 Which of the following databases is used to store Job Scheduler information?
A.sybmigratedb
B.sybmgmtdb
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemdb
Answer: b

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NO.16 Given that the following commands are successfully executed:
use mydb
go
select * into #myusers from sysusers
go
In which database does #myusers exist?
A.master
B.model
C.mydb
D.tempdbX
Answer: d

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NO.17 To allow dirty reads, which of the following should be executed?
A.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 3
B.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 0
C.HOLDLOCK
D.NOHOLDLOCK
Answer: b

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NO.18 To determine if a configuration parameter is static or dynamic run ___________ specifying the
parameter name. (Choose 2)
A.sp_help
B.sp_configure
C.sp_helpconfig
D.sp_monitorconfig
E.sp_monitorX
Answer: bc

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NO.19 Which of the following utility programs are capable of reverse engineering table definitions? (Choose
2)
A.bcp
B.ddlgen
C.optdiag
D.srvbuild
E.Sybase Central
Answer: be

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NO.20 When sizing additional network memory, how many packets does each connection require?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: b

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