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Exam Code: 1Z0-580
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 Installation and Configuration Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 List three reasons why Oracle Solaris 11 and SPARC would be the best platforms for deploying
an
Oracle database.
A. tight engineeringintegration between database and operating system development teams
B. continuous joint testing between database and operating system development teams
C. world record performance
D. Oracle Solaris11is only available on the SPARC platform
E. SPARCis the lowest cost hardware solution on the market today
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Your system has two disk devices, c2t0d0 and c2t1d0, and two flash devices, c2t5d0 and
c2t8d0.
Which command would you to create a storage pool named “tank,” which mirrors the disks and
adds the two flash devices as “cache”?
A. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 mirror c2t5d0 c2t8d0
B. zpoolcreate tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 log mirrorc2t5d0 c2t8d0
C. zpool c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0mirror
D. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0
E. zpool create tankraidz2c2t0d0 c2t1d0 c2t5d0 c2t8d0
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command can be used to determine which apache web server packages are installed?
A. pkg list apache
B. pkg list *apache*
C. pkg list installed apache
D. pkg listallapache
E. pkg list all web installed
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the three properties of a business critical cloud infrastructure?
A. service isolation
B. flexible, virtual application instances
C. dedicated, single purpose file servers
D. easy,intuitive provisioning, chargeback, and capacity planning
E. rigid, inflexible network design
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Which IPS task requires special privileges?
A. Determine if a package is installed or can be updated.
B. Identify the group to which a package belongs.
C. Determine if a package is in a particular category.
D. Determine if a package delivers a specified file.
E. Create a copy of an existing IPS package repository.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-027
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Exadata Database Machine Administration, Software Release 11.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which two are true about Exadata storage server alerts?
A. Metric alerts are never stateful.
B. Metrics have no thresholds set on them by default.
C. SNMP alert notifications can be sent to only one destination.
D. Metric threshold; if set, will persist across storage server reboots.
E. SMTP alert notifications must be sent to both ASR manager and Enterprise Manager Agents
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 Which two are true about the use of DBFS in a Database Machine environment?
A. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a database on the Database Machine if the staging
area requires Exadata based shared storage.
B. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX compliant shared storage solution that is accessible from
the database servers on a Database Machine.
C. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a production database on the Database Machine.
D. DBFSmust use the DBFS_DG diskgroup for any DBFS store.
E. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX-compliant Exadata-based shared storage solution.
Answer: A,B

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5. Which tool will provide you with diagnostic information for all the software log, trace files, and
OS
information on Database Machine?
A. dbmcheck.sh
B. diagget.sh
C. oswatcher
D. adrci
E. Enterprise Manager
Answer: B

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6. You have a partitioned database grid on an X3-2 full rack with two four-node RAC clusters
called
CLUSA and CLUSB. The storage grid, however, has not been partitioned.
Which files on which servers must be modified after connecting an Exadata storage full expansion
rack to your X3-2 Exadata Database Machine on the InfiniBand network so that the cells on the
expansion rack are added to the storage grid?
A. The CELLINIT.ORA files on database servers in CLUSA
B. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSA
C. The CELLINIT.ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
D. The CELLIP .ORA files on all existing and newly added Exadata storage servers.
E. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
Answer: B,E

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7. A read-only application is in development and is using a test database on a Database Machine.
You are examining SQL statements from this application in an attempt to determine which ones
will benefit from the Exadata Smart scan capability.
The following is true about the tables used by the application:
1. The data for the tables has just been loaded.
2. There are no applications accessing the tables currently.
3. None of the indexes are compressed or reverse key indexes.
4. The tables use the default organization type data.

NO.3 Which three storage components are available after the standard initial Database machine
deployment?
A. The DATA_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
B. The RECO_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
C. Mirrored system partitions on hard disk 0 and hard disk 1
D. The DBFS_DG diskgroup with external redundancy
E. Exadata Smart Flash Cache using all of the flashdisk space
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 The largest number of columns for any table is 29.

NO.5 No access is based on ROWID, or virtual columns.
Which two access paths will always generate either a set of “cell smart table scan” or a set of “cell
smart index scan” requested?
A. Full scans on sorted hash clustered tables executed in parallel
B. Full table scans on index organized tables executed in parallel.
C. Full table scans on heap tables executed in parallel
D. Full scans on index clustered tables executed in parallel
E. full scans on hash clustered tables executed in serially
F. fast full scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
G. full index scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
Answer: B,G

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8. You must drop all celldisks on all the cells in a quarter rack as part of a reconfiguration project,
to
support normal redundancy interleaving.
Select two actions that describe the operating system (O/S) account on the cells to which you
should log in, and the tool that may be used to drop the celldisks.
A. To the CELLMONITOR account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell.
B. To CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
C. To either the CELIMONITOR or the CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using
DCLI
D. To the CELLMONITOR account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
E. To the CELLADMIN account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell
F. To either the CELLMONITOR or CELLADMIN account calling interactively on each cell
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 You recently upgraded your Exadata image to the latest release; previously you were using
11.2.0.3.
At the same time, you decide to address some performance problems as follows:
You noticed increased latency for the database log writer, especially during the quarterly battery
learn cycle on the cells.
You have complaints of erratic performance from certain write-intensive applications.
Which two actions could improve performance in these areas?
A. Enable write-back flashcache by setting lunWriteCacheMode to Write Back Mode.
B. Use ALTER TABLE in the database to set CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP for the tables
belonging to the affected application.
C. Configure Smart Flash Log on the cells to use some of these of the space on the cell flash
devices.
D. Configure the table belonging to the affected application using CELLCLI, to the set
CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP .
E. Configure Smart Flash Log on the database server to use server flash memory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 The only data types for the table are varchar (2), number, or date.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.3 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.8 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.9 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

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Exam Code: 1z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

NO.2 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

NO.4 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.5 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value 'Paris' for the
CUST_FIRST_NAME 'Abigail'.
Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.10 You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the
following requirements:
1. You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and
subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

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Exam Code: OMG-OCUP-200
Exam Name: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Intermediate Exam)
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Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies
Answer: C

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NO.2 What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. activity
B. control node
C. action
D. object node
E. state
F. behavior
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. State machine transitions can be triggered.
B. The classifier cannot be an association class.
C. The classifier cannot be abstract.
D. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
E. Behaviors can be executed.
Answer: C

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NO.4 For what does an interaction operator define semantics?
A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment
Answer: D

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NO.5 Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are
simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit). What does this mean?
A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined
fragment would be used?
A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does reaching the terminating pseudostate mean?
A. The final state has been reached.
B. The enclosing region is completed.
C. The "do" activity of the current state has completed.
D. A completion transition has occurred.
E. The context object of the state machine is terminated.
Answer: E

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NO.8 What is a combined fragment?
A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is NOT a correct assertion?
A. Stereotypes extending a model element can be retracted at any time.
B. Un-applying a profile from a model deletes all related stereotypes extending the model.
C. Stereotypes extending a model element are immutable.
D. A model element can be extended by several stereotypes at the same time.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?
A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: B

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NO.11 What characteristic does a behavior port possess?
A. owns the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
B. defines the behavior that the owning classifier must realize
C. has its own behavior that is distinct from the behavior of the classifier
D. relays any incoming messages directly to the behavior of the owning object
E. must have a protocol state machine
F. is a kind of behavior
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?
A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]
Answer: A,F

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NO.13 What indicates an artifact instance in UML notation? (Choose two)
A. class box with two smaller rectangles on its left side
B. <<artifact>> keyword
C. memo box
D. single sheet icon with a folded-over corner
E. syntactically well-formed file name
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 What is the difference between a stereotype and a metaclass?
A. A metaclass is a limited kind of a stereotype that can only be used in conjunction with one of the
stereotypes it limits.
B. Stereotypes can be specialized, but metaclasses cannot be specialized.
C. Metaclasses can be specialized, but stereotypes cannot be specialized.
D. A stereotype is a specialization of a metaclass that can be used by itself, whereas a metaclass must be
used with a stereotype.
E. A stereotype is a limited kind of a metaclass that can be only be used in conjunction with one of the
metaclasses it extends.
Answer: E

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NO.15 What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?
A. initial nodes
B. activity final nodes
C. merges
D. forks
E. joins
F. decisions
G. flow final nodes
Answer: G

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NO.16 What does a loop node consist of?
A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards
Answer: D

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NO.17 Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B. <!p, ?q, ?p, !q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What statement is true if a port delegates to multiple ports on subordinate components?
A. multiple delegation is not allowed
B. subordinate ports must collectively offer the delegated functionality of the delegating port
C. subordinate ports must be type compatible with the delegating port
D. at execution time, signals will be delivered from the subordinate ports to the delegating port
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed.?
A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: C

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NO.20 When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. name of the invoking activity
B. class name of the invoking object
C. invoking object
D. attribute values and links for the invoking object
E. attribute values for the invoking object
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 050-683
Exam Name: Novell (Desktop management with zenworks for desktops 4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed
workstation from the
administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which configurations can be easily set using policies in the user package? (Choose
two)
A. Deploying applications across various LAN locations.
B. Tracking various types of hardware used in your organization.
C. Providing a full-access workstation environment for administrators.
D. Maintaining a workstation environment for users with special needs.
Answer:C, D

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Rank the default precedence of each policy package in order, from highest to
lowest.
Answer:

NO.4 .In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary
rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4) policies are cumulative policies? (Choose
two)
A. Windows Group policies
B. Dynamic Local User polices
C. Computer Extensible policies
D. Windows Desktop Preferences polices
Answer:A, C

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Click the option in ConsoleOne you use to get real-time information about device drivers on the controlled
workstation.
Answer:

NO.7 What is the NetWare console command to verify that automatic workstation import
(AWI) is working
correctly?
A. JAVA -SHOW
B. ZENWSIMPORT
C. JAVA -ZENWSIMPORT
D. SHOW -ZENWSIMPORT
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which eDirectory design guidelines for NetWare should you follow when implementing ZENworks for
Desktops? (Choose two)
A. Tier design guidelines
B. Tree design guidelines
C. Policy design guidelines
D. Server design guidelines
E. Replica design guidelines
Answer:B, E

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NO.9 You created a server policy package and associated it with a server object.
Where are the polices applied?
A. To all ZENworks for Desktops back-end servers-
B. To all objects in the tree that are valid types for the package.
C. To all objects on the server that are valid types for the package.
D. To all objects in the container that are valid types for the package.
Answer:C

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NO.10 .By default, which policy package has highest precedence?
A. A policy package associated with a group object.
B. A policy package associated with the root object.
C. A policy package associated with an organization (O) object.
D. A policy package associated with an organization unit (OU) object.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
Answer:D

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NO.12 What is the benefit of implementing a search policy?
A. It allows you to search eDirectory for a specified user.
B. It limits how fat up the tree ZENworks looks for effective polices.
C. It allows outdated workstations to be easily located and removed.
D. It allows you to monitor events from outside the organization's network.
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which object can you associate with a workstation package?
A. User
B. Printer
C. Security
D. Container
E. Computer
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which server package policy should you use to automatically place and name
workstation objects in the
eDirectory tree?
A. Rollup policy
B. Wake-on-LAN policy
C. Imaging server policy
D. Workstation import policy
Answer:D

Novell   050-683 practice test   050-683

NO.15 Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer:C

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NO.16 When configuring a Workstation package, policies are available under 6 categories.
General, Win95-98,
WinNT-2000-XP, WinNT, Win2000, and WinXP.
What policies can be configured under the General polices category? (Choose two)
A. Help Desk
B. Client Config
C. Remote Control
D. Workstation Imaging
E. Computer Extensible
Answer:C, D

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NO.17 What objects can you use to set security parameters for remote management? (Choose 2.)
A. Alias
B. User
C. Group
D. Workstation
E. Server package
Answer:B, D

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NO.18 What can the user package Novell iPrint policy do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set a printer as a default printer.
B. Install NIPP.EXE on the workstation.
C. Configure a printer for a workstation.
D. Install the iPrint client on a workstation.
Answer:A, D

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NO.19 Which policy can have multiple instances for the same user policy package?
A. Novell iPrint policy
B. Remote control policy
C. User extensible policy
D. Scheduled action policy
E. Dynamic local user policy
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which statements are true regarding ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD 4) policies?
(Choose two)
A. Policies are stored on the workstation.
B. Policies are grouped according to functional area.
C. Policies allow you to assign file system rights to users.
D. ZfD 4 allows the same type of policy to perform various actions according to a
specified schedule.
Answer:B, D

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Exam Code: 50-653
Exam Name: Novell (Certified Novell Administrator 5.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 .Property rights assigned using the Selected Properties option will not be
inherited at a lower level in the tree unless the ________ property right is granted?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Compare
D. Inheritable
E. Add/Remove self
Answer: D

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NO.2 .What is accomplished by adding NAL.EXE to a login script?
A. It creates an application object
B. It associates application objects
C. It makes Application Launcher Window available
D. It installs the application and completes the discovery
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which utilities salvage and purge files? (Choose Two)
A. FLAG
B. FILER
C. NCOPY
D. RENDIR
E. NetWare Administrator
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which roles can be assigned to a controlled access printer? (Choose Three)
A. User
B. Manager
C. Operator
D. Workstation
E. Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 .Which attribute prevents files from being migrated?
A. Co
B. Dc
C. Dm
D. Ec
E. Ic
F. Nc
G. HCSS
Answer: C

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NO.6 .Which utilities allow you to copy a directory structure while maintaining all
NetWare information?(ChooseThree)
A. NetWare Administrator
B. NCOPY
C. FILER
D. DOS COPY command
E. NDIR
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 .Which toolbar buttons are used in the remote control viewing window? (Choose
Three)
A. Start button
B. Accelerated mode button
C. Full screen button
D. Navigation button
E. Application switcher button
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 .Which statement is true?
A. Rights for directories and files are the same.
B. File system security and NDS security are dependent upon each other.
C. NDS security regulates who can access files and directories in volumes.
D. A user does not need file system rights to edit files within the directory as
long as the user has the RW NDS object right to the volume.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Identify the benefits provided by NDPS. (Choose Three)
A. Improves network performance
B. Allows for unidirectional communications
C. Reduces network printing problems
D. Allows administrators to create and configure printer objects manually
E. Reduces administration cost
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 .Which statement about NDS security is true?
A. NDS security does not use inheritance.
B. All rights flow from NDS to the file system
C. The supervisor object right cannot be blocked by an IRF
D. NDS security has two distinct sets of right object and property
E. NDS security is used to manage access to NDS objects, but not their properties.
Answer: D

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NO.11 There are two key files used when utilizing UIMPORT. Which UIMPORT file describes
how data is imported into the directory?
A. Data
B. Control
C. Form
D. Import
E. Fields
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Which symbols initiate the external execution of an EXE file in a login script?
(Choose two)
A. *
B. #
C. @
D. %
E. ''
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 .In which policy package or packages is the search policy contained?
A. User policy package
B. Container policy package
C. Workstation policy package
D. User and workstation policy packages
E. Workstation and container policy packages
Answer: B

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NO.14 .If NAL and Workstation Manager are not installed, then which method of registering
workstations can be used?
A. Z.E.N. work schedule
B. Login script
C. NetWare Application Launcher
D. Remote
Answer: B

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NO.15 .A user has received the supervisor right to the server object. As the network
administrator of your company,
which of the following options would be worth checking to help determine where
this Supervisor right to the server is coming from? (Choose Two)
A. Check to see what effective rights [Root] has to the server object.
B. Check to see what effective rights the user object's has to the server object.
C. If the user is member of the group, check to see if that group has Supervisor
rights to volume
SYS.
D. Check to see if any inherited Rights Filters have been placed on the container
that the server object resides in.
E. Check to see if that user has been granted explicit trustee assignment to the
directory map object
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 .Which statement is true regarding small block sizes?
A. Small block sizes are best for large database records.
B. Small block sizes should be used if you enable blocksuballocation.
C. The server will require less memory to track the File Allocation Table.
D. The server will require more memory to track the Directory Entry Table.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which extension represents the certificate license files?
Answer: NLF

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NO.18 .Which statement is true of a public access printer?
A. A public access printer has high security
B. A public access printer has a corresponding NDS object
C. A public access printer provides plug-and-print capabilities
D. A public access printer provides tighter administrative control
Answer: C

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NO.19 .What functionality does the Help Requestor provide?
A. Provide access to online documentation
B. Provide assistance with hardware installation.
C. Provides assistance with printer configuration
D. Provides user with contact information for reporting workstation problems.
Answer: D

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NO.20 .Which Novell product will launch an application from server B when the primary
application server is down?
A. Monitor
B. Profiles
C. snAppshot
D. Application Launcher
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 50-654
Exam Name: Novell (Netware 5.1 advanced Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 153 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the command to unload all modules from ADDRESS_SPACE2 and remove the address
space?
A.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
B.UNLOAD KILL ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
C.UNLOAD MODULES ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
D.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2 MODULES=ALL
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which NLM is used to configure Network Address Translation on a NetWare 5.1 server? Answer:
A.INETCFG.NLM
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which network administration tools can you use to create NDS objects? (Choose 3.)
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
E.Novell Application Launcher
Correct:A C D

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NO.4 Which statement best describes a web application server?
A.A central location for public and private discussion groups.
B.A platform that provides the runtime environment for an application's business logic.
C.An application that lets users transfer files to and from the computer on the Internet.
D.An application that publishes documents and files on the World Wide Web or on an intranet.
Correct:B

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of Certificate Authority objects that may exist in the NDS tree?
Answer:
A.1
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which statements are true regarding the Compatibility Mode Driver? (Choose 2.)
A.CMD encapsulates IPX packets within IP packets by adding an IP header.
B.In its migration agent mode, SCMD will not load if IPX is bound to a network board in the server.
C.IPX must be bound to the network board in the server before SCMD can be loaded in its default mode.
D.Workstations on IP-only segments need CMD configured in order to communicate with servers on
IPX-only segments.
Correct:A D

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NO.7 The Hung Console Screen is useful if you are unable to execute any commands at the server
console. Which hot key sequence would you use to bring up this screen?
A.Ctrl+Alt+Esc
B.Ctrl+Alt+Del
C.Ctrl+Alt+Tab
D.Ctrl+Shift+Esc
Correct:A

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NO.8 What software provides the cryptography for the Novell Certificate Server? (The acronym is
acceptable.) Answer:
A.NICI
Correct:A

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NO.9 NetWare has 4 types of loadable modules. Which modules control communication between the
server operating system and storage devices?
A.LAN Drivers
B.Disk Drivers
C.NLM Utilities
D.Name Space Modules
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which type of DHCP object should you configure to manually assign an IP address to a specific
workstation on the network?
A.IP Address object
B.DHCP Subnet object
C.Subnet Pool object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:A

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NO.11 Which server console command do you use to prevent unauthorized users from loading NLMs
outside the SYS:SYSTEM directory? Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which network administration tool is used to down, restart, or reset a server?
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
Correct:D

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NO.13 What is the default method for an IP server to locate a migration agent?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Broadcast
D.SAP tables
E.DHCP query
F.Directed broadcast
Correct:B

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NO.14 When you are configuring DHCP, which object identifies the IP addresses available for dynamic
assignment?
A.DHCP Server object
B.Subnet Pool object
C.DNS-DHCP Locator object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:D

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NO.15 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key do other parties use to validate the key
owner's digital signature?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:A

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NO.16 You need to modify the bindery context and NetWare server name for the server. Which file
must you change?
A.SYS:SYSTEM\STARTUP.NCF
B.SYS:SYSTEM\AUTOEXEC.NCF
C.C:\NWSERVER\STARTUP.NCF
D.C:\NWSERVER\AUTOEXEC.NCF
Correct:B

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NO.17 What DOS utility is used for creating the DOS partition when installing NetWare 5.1?
A.FDISK
B.FORMAT
C.PARTITION
D.CHKDSK
Correct:A

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NO.18 Which RConsole agent NLM do you run to access the console screens of a NetWare 5.1 server
over an IP connection?
A.AIO.NLM
B.RCONAG6.NLM
C.RCONSOLE.NLM
D.RCONSOLEJ.NLM
Correct:B

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NO.19 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key does the key owner use to decrypt data he
receives from other parties?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:B

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NO.20 What NLF file allows you to install more than 1 license certificate at a time into license
Container objects?
A.Folders
B.Objects
C.Envelopes
D.Containers
Correct:C

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