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Exam Code: 1Y0-A22
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Advanced Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from
Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Implementing database mirroring
B.Adding an additional zone to the farm
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of
the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. The administrator now plans to back
up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

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NO.3 A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability
for Web Interface?
A.NOCE
B.DESTIP
C.SOURCEIP
D.COOKIEINSERT
Answer: D

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from
Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008
cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors.
None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A.After restarting the data collector
B.After using the DSMAINT command
C.After running the QFARM command
D.After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure
ICA connections from an external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode.
The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface
server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A.On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B.On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C.On one server and place the server in the internal network
D.On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Answer: C

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NO.6 After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.restoring the data store
B.backing up the data store
C.restarting the XenApp server
D.restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode?
(Choose two.)
A.Windows Cluster services
B.NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C.Windows Load Balancing services
D.NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.10 When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A.To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B.To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C.To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D.To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Answer: A

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NO.11 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Replicating the data store to a second database server
C.Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.12 In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition
configuration in the attached exhibit,
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.LDAP
B.RADIUS
C.the Web Interface
D.the Access Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.13 Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed
XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK
command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A.Recover the local data store
B.Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C.Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D.Display information about servers in the farm
Answer: C

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NO.14 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes
on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate
this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied
successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Prohibit logons and notify users.
B.Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C.Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D.Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to
secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA
proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A.Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B.Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C.Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D.Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: 1Y0-200
Exam Name: Citrix (Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7 Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When users launch their pooled desktops from Receiver through StoreFront, the following
error is displayed:
An error occurred while making the requested connection.
Which action could the Citrix Administrator take to determine the cause of this issue?
A. Read the client event logs.
B. Restart the StoreFront server.
C. Check that the SSL certificates are correctly installed.
D. Read the Delivery Controller logs and StoreFront logs.
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-200   1Y0-200

NO.2 A Citrix Administrator updates a vDisk assigned to a group of pooled desktops.
Which two steps must the administrator take to ensure that the updated vDisk is associated with
the pooled desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Update the vDisk's inventory.
B. Promote the vDisk to production.
C. Place the vDisk into private image mode.
D. Recreate the pooled desktops associated with the vDisk.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 A Citrix Administrator is unable to create machines in Citrix Studio.
What are two possible reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP Service is NOT running.
B. The computer browser is NOT running.
C. The Machine Creation Service is NOT running.
D. The Active Directory Identity Service is NOT running.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Scenario: A company implements XenDesktop. Windows XP users are unable to launch their
Windows 8 virtual desktops. They receive the following error:
Error: Please contact your help desk with the following information: Cannot validate SSL certificate.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Citrix Receiver needs to be updated.
B. The SSL certificate on the NetScaler has expired.
C. The server certificate is NOT installed on the computer.
D. Citrix Receiver is unable to verify the server certificate revocation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented a Citrix policy to set up Citrix Profile
Management. After the administrator implemented the policy, users are still being required to set
up their applications each time they logon.
What is preventing the existing policy from working?
A. The .INI file does NOT exist.
B. There are no filters set within the policy.
C. The path specified to save the profile is incorrect.
D. The users need to be removed from the Citrix profile group.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator enables Citrix Profile Management for virtual desktop users.
These users are now reporting that their session logon times have become slow. The administrator
needs to gather data to resolve the issue.
To gather information on the slow logons, the administrator could use __________ or __________.
(Choose the two options to complete the sentence.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Profile Management log files
D. Citrix Configuration Logging database
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What should a Citrix Administrator implement to improve logon times that are being affected
by profile size?
A. Logon Scripts
B. Offline profiles
C. Roaming profiles
D. Folder redirection
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to use Provisioning Services to create a vDisk from a
target device that has the latest hotfixes and security updates applied. The master target device is a
Windows 7 virtual machine running on XenServer.
What should the administrator do to create a new vDisk from the target device?
A. Run the Imaging Wizard on the target device.
B. Run the 'Add personal vDisk storage' wizard in Citrix Studio.
C. Run the target device software to capture the target device hard drive.
D. Use the 'Export' option in XenServer to create a vDisk from the target device.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a
server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A Citrix Administrator creates a backup schedule that will back up all of the available vDisks.
Which three critical file types must to be added to the backup schedule? (Choose three.)
A. BAK
B. PVP
C. VHD
D. LOK
E. AVHD
Answer: B,C,E

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Exam Code: 156-310
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSE NG)
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Total Q&A: 398 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Dr Bill is setting up a new VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. The Rule Base
is configured to allow all traffic, and the Enforcement Module is set up as shown in
the screen capture below. Dr bill cannot get the new system to pass any traffic.
What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
System specifications:
1. Processor: 2.2 GHz
2. RAM: 256 MB
3. Hard Disk: 10 GB
4. OS: Windows 2000 Server
Results of ipconfig/all
View the following exhibit for the results of ipconfig/all.
A. Routing is not properly configured.
B. The machine does not have enough RAM.
C. The processor is not fast enough.
D. The operating system is not supported.
E. The Rule Base is blocking traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following does NOT require definition for a Voice over IP (VoIP)
Domain SIP object?
A. SIP Proxy
B. IP Address Range
C. VoIP Gateway
D. Related Endpoint Domain
E. Name
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the Use Aggressive Mode check box in the IKE Properties dialogue box is
enabled:
A. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
B. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
C. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
E. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 3 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements BEST explains the difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and
alerts?
The difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and alerts is that:
A. Log entries contain detailed information about traffic. Alerts contain only brief descriptions of problems.
And links to the appropriate log entries.
B. Log entries are recorded in SmartView Tracker, and are persistent. Alerts appear only in SmartView
Status,
and are not persistent.
C. Logs are recorded sequentially, by date and time received. Alerts are arranged by priority and
magnitude.
D. Logging allows a Security Administrator to view historical connection information. Alerts are real-time
and
can be applied to a Security Policy's predefined tracking properties.
E. Logs are generated for explicit rules, defined by Security Administrators in the Security Policy. Alerts
are
automatically generated by implicit rules, created as a result of Global Properties settings.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.10 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

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NO.11 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-310 test questions   156-310   156-310

NO.12 VPN-1/FireWall-1 can be configured to enable Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic in which
of the following environments? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. Q.931
C. G.723
D. DiffServ QOS
E. H.323
Answer: A, E

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT a feature or quality of a hash function?
A. It is mathematically infeasible to derive the original message from the message digest.
B. The hash function is irreversible.
C. It is mathematically infeasible for two different messages to produce the same message digest.
D. The hash function forms a two-way, secure communication.
E. Encrypted with the sender's RSA private key, the hash function forms the digital signature.
Answer: D

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NO.14 All of the following are steps for implementing UFP, EXCEPT:
A. While the UFP Server is analyzing the requests, the Enforcement Module HTTP Proxy Server initiates
a
request to the destination. The HTTP Proxy server then waits for a response from the UFP Server before
allowing the request.
B. The client invokes a connection through the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module.
C. The Content Server inspects the URLs and returns the validation result message to the Enforcement
Module.
D. The Enforcement Module takes the action defined in the Rule Base for the resource.
E. The Security Server uses UFP to send the URL to a third-party UFP Server categorization.
Answer: A

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NO.15 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310   156-310

NO.17 If you are using SIP or SIP_ANY, and the Source or Destination is Any, which of the following
statements are TRUE concerning SIP Services? (Choose two)
If the Service is:
A. SIP_Any, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is SIP Proxy.
B. SIP_Any, and the Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (external only) is not a SIP Proxy.
C. SIP, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, unless
it is a
SIP Proxy.
D. SIP, and the Destination is ANY, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, so
it
must be a SIP Proxy.
E. SIP_Any, and the Source or Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is
always a SIP Proxy.
Answer: B, C

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NO.18 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT a method used to configure SIP?
A. With SIP Proxies.
B. With a SIP Gatekeeper to a network without a proxy.
C. From a network without a proxy to a network with a proxy.
D. With a proxy for internal communications.
E. Without SIP Proxies.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT a valid VPN configuration option available in the
VPN Manager of the Simplified Rule Base?
A. Point-to-Point
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Star with Meshed Center
E. Star
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following encryption algorithms supports a key length from 128-bits to 256-bits and is
outlined in the new Federal Information Processing Standard publication?
A. AES (Ridndael)
B. CAST Cipher
C. 3DES
D. DES
E. Blowfish
Answer: A

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NO.22 When you upgrade VPN-1/FireWall-1, what components are carried over to the new
version? (Choose two)
A. Licenses
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 database
C. OPSEC database
D. Backward Compatibility
E. Rule Base
Answer: A, B

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NO.23 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.24 The
_______ algorithm determines the load of each physical server and requires a Load Measuring
Agent be installed on each server.
A. Server Load
B. Server Relay
C. Round Robin
D. Domain
E. Round Trip
Answer: A

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NO.25 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.26 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
A. Provides certificates for users and Security Administrators.
B. Generated certificates for HTTPS Web server.
C. Establishes SIC between OPSEC applications and Check Point products.
D. Authentications SecureClient traffic to Enforcement Modules for VPNs.
E. Establishes SIC between Check Point products.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310 practice test   156-310

NO.29 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.30 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.2 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.3 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.4 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.6 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.8 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.1 When logged into wehRH, what is the only task that a help-desk user can perform?
A. Create a rec file
B. Create updates
C. Force uninstall
D. Provide Remote Help
Answer: D

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NO.2 Is Active Directory / Eilirectory required for Device Protector to work?
A. No, as Device Protector can work within Linux
B. No, only a copy of Windows XP Home
C. Yes, Device Protector cannot be installed without an Active Directory / Edirectory being present
D. No, but you will only be able to apply profiles to the local machine
Answer: D

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NO.3 How would you uninstall Pointsec from a machine that has not written a recovery file {.rec} and has yet
to he encrypted?
A. Use "reco_img.exe" and perform forced removal
B. Create recovery disk using another rec file
C. Add/remove programs
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 How do Offline Profiles work?
A. By applying a profile to a user when a connection to the Device Protector server cannot be made
B. By forcing users to go offline in the event of a security breach O
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 If a client machine in need of a profile update has no path for update profiles set in the Pointsec
Management Console. Is it possible to still update this client?
A. Yes, by placing the profile in the search path for its recovery files.
B. No, it is not possible to update this client
C. Yes by placing the profile in the system root directory
D. Yes, by placing the profile in %PROGRAM FILES%\Pointsec\Pointsec for PC /work.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the options to harvest log for 3rd party tools
A. Use GET command with FTP Server script
B. Export logs from Pre Boot Environment
C. Use pslogexp.exe to export logs
D. Simply point your 3rd party tool to the Pointsec recovery path
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following strategies, if used individually, is viewed to he the most secure method to protect
data?
A. File encryption
B. Boot protection
C. Encryption
D. Boot protection and encryption
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following components is not installed as part of a Pointsec for PC installation?
A. Pre boot authentication
B. Secure user database
C. Monitoring tool
D. File encryption
Answer: D

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NO.9 A one time login and remote password change response can he used multiple times to allow access to
the machine
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of these methods cannot he used to uninstall a Pointsec for PC encrypted system?
A. Add/Remove Programs
B. Use .rec to decrypt in recovery mode
C. Manual removal of files
D. An un-install profile
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the name of the Service that can he used for transfer ting the recovery file to the network share
instead of the logged on user.?
A. Pointsec Service Start
B. Pointsec Transer Service
C. Pointsec Recovery Service
D. None of the Above
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is not a directory path designated in the profile?
A. Recovery path
B. Update path
C. Software update
D. Installation
Answer: C

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NO.13 You cm also use preclieck.txt to configure settings for?
A. Third-party Graphical Identification and Authentication (GINA) dlls
B. Single Sign On (SSO) delay times
C. Profile update intervals
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 How cm Device Protector stop my new programs from being installed and old programs from being
uninstalled?
A. By setting Removable Media Manager to prevent any application uninstallations / installations.
B. By selecting .EXE and .MSI in Trusted File Types in Program Security Guard
C. By setting Device Manager to Deny All
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are 3 processes which Device Protector exempts by Default
A. .BAT.CMD.MP3 :
B. .EXE .VBS .BAT
C. JPG .DOC .XML
D. .GIF.DLL.CPL
E. .EXE .COM .SYS
Answer: E

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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.2 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a
site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.3 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning
specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.4 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and
IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other
R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that
may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.7 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool.
What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces
(VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all
of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She
wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to
prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make
sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance
impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance
impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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NO.11 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings.
What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection
was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup
purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway
running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform
content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

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NO.16 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning
and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge
appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

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NO.17 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall.
What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

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NO.19 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the
traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access
Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.21 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access
is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it
could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

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NO.23 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must
you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

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NO.24 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall
configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office
and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the
system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management
Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best
answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the
first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

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NO.26 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to
detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a
host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.28 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation
policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

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NO.29 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.30 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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