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Exam Code: 1K0-002
Exam Name: Polycom (CVE-2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 263 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

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NO.3 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.5 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.6 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.9 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

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NO.12 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.13 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.14 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

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NO.16 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.18 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.19 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Oracle (R12 Oracle: install,Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications)
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NO.1 Which command can be used only with a single-node installation?
A.rapidwiz -restart
B.rapidwiz -techstack
C.rapidwiz -servername
D.rapidwiz -silent -config
Answer: C

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NO.2 You experience report-error problems in the Inventory module after applying a patch to the same
module.
You run the AD Administration utility, and select the Generate Application Files menu. Because you have
report problems, you decide to run Generate Report Files.
You answered the following questions during the utility run:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle report objects using the current character set? (You answer Yes.)
2. Do you want to regenerate the Oracle reports PL/SQL library files? (You answer No.)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle reports executable files? (You answer Yes.)
4. For which products do you want to generate Oracle report objects? (You answer "all reports in INV.")
After you run the AD utilities, most reports in Inventory run with no errors. However, you still experience
errors with two reports.
Which two statements explain why the two reports still run with errors? (Choose two.)
A.You have reports in a different language.
B.You have reports with external library files.
C.You have custom reports in a custom directory.
D.You have reports from a different module being referenced on the Inventory report menu.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You discover that you will be applying an application patch on your APPL_TOP by using AutoPatch,
which
contains a compatible feature, the prereq line.
To ensure that the automatic, prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the
patch, you must run AD Administration, Maintain Snapshot Information, then perform some key tasks, and
then AutoPatch.
Select four key Maintain Snapshot Information tasks or combination of tasks that will ensure that the
prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch. (Choose four.)
A.Update a current view snapshot, or create a named snapshot.
B.Export a snapshot to a file, and then delete the named snapshot.
C.Import an up-to-date snapshot from a file from a different APPL_TOP.
D.List snapshots, delete the named snapshot, and create a named snapshot.
E.Copy the existing snapshot, delete the named snapshot, and then create a named snapshot.
Answer: ACDE

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NO.4 What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker?
(Choose two.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
E.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Identify two ways in which you validate the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business
Suite setup. (Choose two.)
A.Run the /appsutil/scripts//advrfapp.sh script.
B.Run the AD Administration utility in noninteractive mode with the default file having
menu_option=VALIDATE_APPS.
C.Run the AD Administration utility in interactive mode, and then select Compile/Reload Applications
Database Entities menu > Compile APPS Schema option.
D. Use SQL*PLUS / @$AD_TOP/admin/sql/advrfapp.sql .
Answer: BD

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NO.6 While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The
initial screen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status "Downloading JAR
files..." for a long time.
Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plug-in is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as "Low" for the zone that contains the
Oracle Application Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.
Which environment file is used to identify and describe third-party and custom applications linked with
Oracle Applications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B

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NO.8 You run the AD Administration utility and select the Relink Applications programs.
You answered the following questions during the utility run:
Do you wish to proceed with the relink [Yes]? (You answer Yes.)
Enter the list of products to link ("all" for all products) [all]? (You answer "ad." )
Do you want to generate specific executables for each selected product [No]? (You answer Yes.)
AD Administration can relink your Oracle Applications programs with debug
information. Oracle recommends that you do not relink your programs
with debug information unless asked to do so by Oracle Support Services.
Do you want to relink with debug information [No]? (You answer No.)
What is the next question asked by adadmin?
A.It gives you a list of all executables to choose from.
B.It gives you the list of "ad" executables to choose from.
C.It gives you the list of all executables except "ad" to choose from.
D.It asks no question. It displays the message "Review the messages above, then press [Return] to
continue."
Answer: D

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NO.9 As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the
target system.
Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806 ORACLE_HOME> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs
to be dropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?
A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C

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NO.11 Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)
A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 You just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications
now experience problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form.
You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix
theproblem.
You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)
2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)
4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)
5. Enter the list of products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)
6. Do you want to generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)
7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)
8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx
The utility finished with no errors in the log file.
What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A.All forms in the product group fnd now render with errors.
B.All forms in the product group fnd now render without errors.
C.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors.
D.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Before you apply a patch, you read the readme.txt file.
One of the areas of Oracle Applications to which the patch will be applied is JAVA_TOP.
The readme file mentions that you may need to generate product JAR files in the AD Administration
utilities after the patch is applied.
When generating product JAR files, the AD Administration utility will prompt you with the question: Do you
want to force the generation of all JAR files?
What are the three occasions when you need to force the generation of all JAR files? (Choose three.)
A.after changing your digital signature
B.after updating to a new Java version
C.if you find you have missing or out-of-date JAR files
D.if you are upgrading the Oracle Developer technology stack
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the
files that are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.
Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run "Compile APPS schema" by using the AD
Administration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite
environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite
environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12
E-Business Suite database
Answer: AB

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NO.16 If the patch is running in Pre-Install mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle
Applications R12 configured on a UNIX operating system?
A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D

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NO.17 AD Administration contains a utility named Maintain Snapshot Information. Which statements
correctly describe the functionality of this utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A.You can create a copy of an existing snapshot.
B.You can delete the current view snapshot.
C.You can create a list of the current view and named snapshots stored in your system.
D.You can export an existing snapshot to a file for storage or to another system.
E.You can update the current view snapshot with any changes to the snapshot since the last update.
Answer: ACDE

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NO.18 What is the default value of ?
A.APPS_
B.APPS_
C._
D._
E.APPS_
Answer: D

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NO.19 Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to
the 11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.stand-alone patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C

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NO.20 During installation, the Rapid Install process creates ______ that are used to start and stop the server
processes on the database tier.
A.JServer load balancers
B.cost-based optimizers
C.database resource managers
D.session-persistent load balancers
E.database-tier server process scripts
Answer: E

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Payables Essentials)
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NO.1 What is a benefit of the secondary tracking segment?
A. Additional security ensures that correct accounts are selected while entering transactions.
B. The Management segment is enabled automatically when the secondary segment is defined.
C. More details are provided to retained earnings, cumulative translation adjustments, and revaluation
gains/losses accounts.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at a client site. The client is based in the US, but they
have a presence in many countries and transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation team
decides that the GL multi-currency setup will be a part of the implementation. The company's
management in the US wants to see all transactions in USD, whereas the management in Europe wants
to see the transactions in Euros. The CFO has this requirement: While entering daily transactions, the
user must be able to enter the current exchange rate. But at month end, the assets and liabilities in Euros
must be converted into USD at the monthly average exchange rate. Can this requirement be satisfied?
A. Oracle GL does not support this functionality.
B. Workflow must be customized to satisfy this requirement.
C. The account generator must be customized to satisfy this requirement.
D. Oracle GL provides this functionality and there is no problem in satisfying the requirement.
Answer: D

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NO.3 John, the rates manager at ABC Company in the USA, is in charge of maintaining currency rates for
the entire company. John had defined the rates for GBP to USD and GBP to Indian Rupee (INR) only.
Sam, the company accountant, is worried that he would not be able to execute transactions involving
USD and INR currencies. What does John say to help Sam?
A. Currency Rates Manager automatically converts all transactions entered in INR to USD.
B. Currency Rates Manager automatically converts all transactions entered in INR to GBP first and then
to USD.
C. Currency Rates Manager automatically performs the calculation between USD and INR on the basis of
cross-rate rules.
D. Sam must manually define the USD to INR rates first, to be able to enter transactions involving USD
and INR currency.
E. Sam must manually define the INR to USD rates first, to be able to enter transactions involving USD
and INR currency.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Select two actions that ledger sets permit. (Choose two.)
A. performing variance inquiries
B. being used for mass budgets
C. sending budget balance inquiries
D. viewing account balances for multiple ledgers in one view
E. grouping multiple ledgers that share the same chart of accounts and calendar
Answer: D, E

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NO.5 You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at a client site. The client is based in the US, but they
have a global presence in many countries and transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation
team decides that the Oracle General Ledger multi-currency setup will be a part of the implementation.
The client's Chief Financial Officer wants a system that has these features: 1. Enter transactions and
reports in any currency. 2. Enter exchange rates online or automatically. 3. Calculate realized and
unrealized gains and losses. IV. Translate actual and budget balances. 4. Produce foreign currency
financial statements and reports. Which requirements can be satisfied with the implementation?
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
D. All requirements from 1 through 5 can be satisfied.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three activities would use summary accounts? (Choose three.)
A. creating a monthly recurring standard journal entry to amortize goodwill
B. allocating the total monthly costs of the Information Services department to other departments
C. estimating a sales commission accrual based on the total of all product sales for each division
D.formulating a budget for employee benefits in each company based on the total of all budgeted
employee salaries
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.7 Identify three setup options that are defined in the Financial Options window. (Choose three.)
A. interest
B. retainage
C. miscellaneous
D. expenses clearing
E. expense AP accrual account
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.8 Identify the four setup options that control supplier defaults. (Choose four.)
A. financial options
B. payables options
C. receiving options
D. purchasing options
E. Payables system setup
F. Trading Community Architecture (TCA)
Answer: A, B, D, E

Oracle   1Z0-517   1Z0-517

NO.9 You are implementing Oracle General Ledger (GL) at a client site. The client is based in the US, but
they have a presence in many countries and transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation
team decides that the GL multi-currency setup will be a part of the implementation. John, a junior
consultant helping you in the implementation effort, tells you that he is testing the system and entering
journals in USD, Yen, and Euros. He says that he is able to enter journals in USD and Euros, but not in
Japanese Yen. What possible explanation can you provide to John for this?
A. Yen has not been enabled.
B. Rate types have not been defined for Yen.
C. Daily rates have not been entered for Yen.
D. Workflow must be customized for journals to be entered in Yen.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Payables lists four seeded payment methods. They are check, outsourced check, electronic, and wire.
Choose the correct description for wire.
A. a paper check to print and send to a supplier
B. an EFT, EDI, or XML to the bank of a supplier
C. a funds transfer initiated by contacting the bank and requesting wire payment to the bank of a supplier
D. transmission of payment information to an external party, such as your bank, that prints checks on your
behalf
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which event reverses an accrual for an item set to accrue on receipt?
A. paying an invoice
B. delivering goods to a final destination
C. running the Receipt Accruals - Period-end process
D. matching an invoice in Payables to a purchase order
Answer: D

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NO.12 Identify the different types of data that can be processed using the GL Interface. (Choose three.)
A. rates
B. budget
C. vendors
D. statistical
E. intercompany
F. currency codes
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.13 Identify three statements that are correct for the multi-currency functionality of Oracle General Ledger.
(Choose three.)
A. Enter transactions and reports in any currency.
B. Enter exchange rates online and automatically.
C. Translate only actual but not budgeted balances.
D. Translate only budgeted but not actual balances.
E. Use daily, period end, average, and historical rates.
Answer: A, B, E

Oracle   1Z0-517   1Z0-517

NO.14 Select two statements that are correct for the secondary tracking segment. (Choose two.)
A. Only the natural account segment or the balancing segment can be specified as the secondary
tracking segment.
B. Any segment that is specified as the secondary tracking segment also must be specified as the
management segment.
C. Any segment, except the natural account segment or the balancing segment, can be specified as the
secondary tracking segment.
D. This segment will be paired with the balancing segment when generating account balances for
retained earnings account, unrealized gains or losses account, and the cumulative translation adjustment
account.
E. This segment will be paired with the natural account segment when generating account balances for
retained earnings account, unrealized gains or losses account, and the cumulative translation adjustment
account.
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 Which module of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 sends revaluation and accrual entries to
General Ledger?
A. Oracle Assets
B. Oracle Projects
C. Oracle Treasury
D. Oracle Receivables
E. Oracle Property Manager
Answer: C

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NO.16 Select two actions available in Oracle General Ledger. (Choose two.)
A. deleting posted journals
B. exporting data to subsidiary ledgers
C. importing data from subsidiary ledgers
D. consolidating balances in subsidiary ledgers
E. consolidating balances from multiple ledgers
Answer: C, E

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NO.17 Which three are the benefits of the Currency Rates Manager in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose
three.)
A. You can maintain daily rates and historical rates more easily.
B. You get improved efficiency with the help of the spreadsheet interface.
C. You can maintain consistency among different currency conversion rates.
D. Additional security ensures that historical rates can be uploaded to closed or future periods only.
E. You can maximize intercompany imbalances during intercompany eliminations of foreign currency
transactions that are due to exchange rate differences.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.18 Identify three ways that an invoice can be submitted for validation. (Choose three.)
A. online by clicking the Validate button in the Invoice Batches window
B. online by clicking the Validate and Account button in the Invoice Batches window
C. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Invoice Workbench
D. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Submit Request window
E. online by selecting either the Validate check box or the Validate Related Invoices check box in the
Invoice Actions window
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.19 ABC Company in India imports baking equipment from XYZ Company in the USA. There is an
outstanding invoice of $1,000,000 to be paid in two months. The USD-to-INR rate when the transaction
was done was 47.5. Now the USD-to-INR rate has changed from 47.5 to 40.5. Jack, who is a treasury
analyst at ABC Company, reviews the transactions and comes to a conclusion. Select two correct
conclusions arrived upon by Jack. (Choose two.)
A. XYZ Company is not impacted at all by this rate change.
B. XYZ Company has a positive impact by this rate change.
C. ABC Company is not impacted at all by this rate change.
D. ABC Company has a positive impact by this rate change.
Answer: A, D

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NO.20 Choose the reason why Tina is unable to view the subledger entries from Oracle Payables in the
Oracle General Ledger module. She has run the transfer program that completes successfully.
A. Journal Import is not submitted.
B. The Journal source is not defined.
C. The Journal category is not defined.
D. Payables is not integrated with General Ledger.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two statements are true about the reporting currency in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose two.)
A. It is an integrated extension of a ledger.
B. It replaces multiple reporting currencies.
C. Reporting currencies are the same as secondary ledgers.
D. Reporting currencies cannot have the same chart of accounts, accounting method, and ledger
processing options.
Answer: A, B

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NO.22 Select three activities that must be performed to complete the setup of the key accounting flexfiel
D. (Choose three.)
A. Create aliases.
B. Define a value set.
C. Define security rules.
D. Define an account structure.
E. Define valid segment values.
F. Create account combinations.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.23 Choose three tables that will be populated when the Journal Import process is run with the option to
post set as "Yes." (Choose three.)
A. GL_JE_LINES
B. GL_JE_BATCHES
C. GL_JE_HEADERS
D. GL_JE_SOURCES
E. GL_IMPORT_REFERENCES
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.24 With Oracle Cash Management, you can reconcile payments created in Payables to your bank
statements. When you reconcile payments using Oracle Cash Management, Cash Management updates
the status of payments. Select the new status.
A. issued
B. updated
C. negotiable
D. reconciled
Answer: D

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NO.25 Isa Global Inc. is based in the United States with divisions in Europe and Asia. All journal imports,
recurring journals, mass allocations, and manual journal entries have been posted for their European
subsidiary. What is the next logical step in the period-close process?
A. opening the next period
B. closing the current period
C. revaluing foreign currency balances
D. translating to the functional currency
E. consolidating to the parent set of books
Answer: C

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NO.26 You are working on an implementation for Accounts Payable for ABC Inc. Your client has three
requirements: 1. They want to be able to pay only certain types of suppliers by batch. 2. Each payment
batch must be under $100,000 USD, or the batch automatically gets canceled without user intervention. 3.
Each single payment for a supplier site must be between $10 USD and $10,000 USD, or the payment is
automatically not issued. To meet the above requirements, you perform these steps: a) Set up suppliers
with pay groups for each type, and use them when running the payment batch. b) Set up the payment
batch with Maximum Outlay equal to $100,000 USD. c) Set up the payment batch with
Maximum/Minimum payments as $10 USD and $10,000 USD. Which requirements have you met?
A. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: D

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NO.27 The companys two senior executives have different budget figures. They want Peter, the GL accountant,
to prepare two current budgets in Oracle Financials and submit budgets to both of them. What would be
your response?
A. It is not possible to have more than one current budget.
B. Whether you can have multiple current budgets depends on the budget organization.
C. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the budget level if you want to have multiple
current budgets.
D. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the set of books level if you want to have
multiple current budgets.
E. The Oracle General Ledger budget functionality supports multiple current budgets, so there is no
problem in satisfying this requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Scott, the CFO at ABC Company in the USA, wants to present the annual income statement to the
board of directors of the company. ABC Company engages in many exports and import activities and
follows the policy to revalue all its transactions in foreign currency with the current market rates. Scott
requests George, the head accountant of the company, to revalue all foreign currency transactions done
during the year. Select two prerequisites that George must comply with to ensure that the revaluation is
done as desired. (Choose two.)
A. Define accounts for realized gains and realized losses.
B. Define accounts for unrealized gains and unrealized losses.
C. Define the weights for each currency used for doing transactions.
D. Define a batch under which the revaluation journals would be stored.
E. Define a revaluation rate for each currency for each period or date for which the revaluation must be
run.
Answer: B, E

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NO.29 ABC Corporation has five companies, which operate in different industries. Each company has a
different ledger-processing option that is industry specific. Choose the number of primary ledgers that are
required to be defined.
A. five
B. four
C. two
D. one
E. three
Answer: A

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NO.30 Select three levels where additional reporting currency representations can be maintained. (Choose
three.)
A. batch
B. journal
C. balance
D. subledger
Answer: B, C, D

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Human Capital Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Payroll has completed, but the payroll process is in incomplete status. The pre-payment process is run.
What is the impact on the pre-payment?
A. The pre-payment process will not process any employee.
B. Pre-payments are processed only for those employees whose payroll process status is Incomplete.
C. Pre-payments are processed only for those employees whose payroll process status is Complete.
D. Pre-payments are processed for all the employees for whom payroll was run.
E. Pre-payments will be processed for all the employees with default payment method.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An element exists with the classification, "Tax Deduction." The element is not appearing in the Adjust
balance element list. Identify two reasons for this.
A. Adjustment cannot be done for the Element classification "Tax Deduction."
B. A valid element link is not created.
C. The element must have an input value of the type date.
D. If a Payroll is run for the effective date, then the element will not be available in the List of Values
(LOV).
E. The element creation date is later than the current effective date.
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 In Core HR, how can an organization capture all the recruitment activities for the current financial year
within a parent recruitment activity?
A. Create the parent recruitment activity. While creating the child recruitment activities specify the parent
recruitment activity in the 'Within Recruitment Activity' section.
B. Attach multiple recruitment activities to the same requisition.
C. Attach multiple recruitment activities to the same vacancy.
D. While creating the child/parent recruitment activities check the primary flag for the parent recruitment
activity.
E. A recruitment activity cannot be linked to any other recruitment activity.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the Approval Management Engine (AME), how are the approvers notified in the Consensus Voting
Regime?
A. Members are notified in parallel.
B. Members are notified one after the other, in an order consistent with the member's order numbers.
C. The first member to respond to the notification requesting approval becomes the group's approval
decision.
D. No approval is required; only FYI notification is sent.
E. Member are notified in Serial.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Identify two functions for an Element Set that is of the type Customizaiton Set.
A. to restrict the elements that can be entered or viewed on a configured version of the Element Entries
window
B. to specify the elements for which the RetroPay By Element process must be run.
C. to specify the elements for which the Payroll Run process must be run
D. to specify the elements to be entered for assignments using Batch Element Entry in the Batch
Assignment Entry window
E. to define the elements over which the costs of other elements are to be distributed in the Element Link
window
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 Identify which four are available as a dynamic database item in a fast formula of the type "Oracle
Payroll."
A. Table Values
B. Elements
C. Balances
D. Absence Types
E. Grade Rates and Pay Scale Rates
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.7 HR department of the XYZ company has two types of users:
HR Administrator and Head of Department (HoD), using the UR Executive and HR Manager
responsibilities, respectively.
The HoD wants to ensure that the HR Administrator has read-only access to the Grade Description form
(Navigation:
Work Structures > Grade > Description).
Assuming that the Grade Description form and Taskflow associated with both the responsibilities are
different, how can this be done.?
A. Add the parameter QUERY_ONLY=YES to the Grade Description form associated with the HR
Executive responsibility.
B. Create a new form using Custom form (Navigation: Security > Customform) under the HR Executive
responsibility with the specific restrictions.
C. Use HR Security profile to make the Grade Description form as read-only.
D. HR Forms cannot be made read-only.
E. Exclude the Grade Description function in the HR Executive responsibility.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the three tasks that can be performed in Compensation Workbench (CWB).
A. Set Budgets
B. Review and Submit
C. Change Supervisor
D. Change Cost Center
E. Change Job
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.9 What are the two access levels for a lookup type that allow users to add any number of values?
A. User
B. Extensible
C. System
D. Independent
E. Table dependent
Answer: A, D

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Total Q&A: 144 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this substantial load,
the database is overburdened and fails frequently. All data, including critical user records and temporary
session data, are stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new database system
cannot be installed. Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. create more entity beans to optimize the interaction with the database
B. refactor the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. refactor the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. add more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company architected and developed a Java EE application and now they are having problems with
the scalability of the system. The application uses JSPs and servlets deployed to a web container, and
stateless session beans and DAOs deployed to an EJB container. The application's non-functional
requirement for scalability is to support 500 concurrent users during peak hours of operation. The
application can currently support 500 concurrent users, but the response time is 200 percent of what it is
acceptable. You have been hired as an architect and have been assigned to help resolve this problem.
The company's management is concerned with the hardware budgeting. What initial advice would you
give to the company?
A. add another web server
B. start a new project to re-architect the application
C. monitor the application to determine the potential problem areas
D. add more memory and processors to the hardware hosting the EJB container
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company has a legacy system that it is going to use Java EE technology to re-engineer. The legacy
solution consists of active server pages and a relational database. The company is interested in changing
DB vendors in the future and this requirement is key to moving forward.
This is a web-based transactional sales system. The company will keep the relational database schema
because it still meets business requirements and will not require re-engineering. What is
the best solution?
A. JSP, JDBC only
B. JSP, servlets, JDBC only
C. JSF, servlets, JPA, EJB3
D. JSF, servlets, DAO, JDBC
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are architecting a complex multi-tiered web application. Within each tier you have designed layers,
the lowest being the hardware layer and the highest being the application layer. Which statement is true?
A. Generally, a given layer in one tier of this application should be concerned with the technology used in
the same layer of adjacent tiers.
B. To maximize separation of concerns, a given layer in a tier of this application should only have
knowledge of the adjacent layer in that tier.
C. For any given tier, separation of concerns is fulfilled when a given layer in that tier knows or needs to
know little or nothing of the layers below it.
D. If the layers in one tier of the application have been designed to achieve separation of
concerns, then the remaining tiers also achieve separation of concerns by default.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which application would NOT be a good candidate for an EJB-centric implementation of the business
tier?
A. an application that transfers money between accounts
B. a news-oriented web site that receives millions of hits a day
C. an application with business logic that calls third-party web services
D. a small workflow-oriented application to provision and deprovision employee accounts
Answer: B

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NO.6 An existing web application uses JSPs to communicate directly to a database. Small changes to the
database result in business logic changes to many JSPs. The single JSP developer, who was also the
graphic artist, has just quit the project. In addition, the company needs to add a web services-based
interface to the application. You have been hired as the architect to refactor the web application. Which
two changes should you make to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. introduce a separate presentation layer with different views for HTML and XML
B. add an abstraction layer between the database and JSPs to encapsulate business logic
C. develop a DAO layer to encapsulate the database access that can be used by all the JSPs
D. add new JSPs for the XML and use <jsp:include> to incorporate the existing business logic
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which Java EE feature helps facilitate migration to SOA?
A. Stateful session beans can be exposed as web services.
B. Stateless session beans can be exposed as web services.
C. Stateful session beans support local and remote interfaces.
D. Stateless session beans support local and remote interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements:
Users access the system over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order.
Users must log in and are validated using LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company is in the business of distributing hard candies. The distribution of these candies is
automated and the system that helps track information about candy distribution is written in Java
technology. The business unit for the company has been asking the IT group to provide a flexible
reporting system to track detailed information. A large amount of data about candy is stored using a DAO
layer, but little is used. What is the best solution for the IT group to implement to provide the most flexibility
for the business unit?
A. refactor the DAOs to include additional static queries to pull information and export a
spreadsheet for the business unit to review
B. implement an ad-hoc query tool exposed using JSF that allows business units to create queries and
produce results in a given format
C. provide a JSP page, which has scriptlets that expose pre-defined queries for the business unit to
execute and display in HTML
D. create a web service that exposes fixed queries invoked by a JSP client that can pull data from the
database and export in a given format
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about the Flyweight pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It allows a single instance of a class to virtually represent many instances.
B. When used appropriately it can reduce memory demands on your servers.
C. It allows for many instances of a class to be controlled by a single instance.
D. It allows many tightly related, homogeneous objects to each maintain their own state.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 What describes the design relationship between session beans and entity beans?
A. aggregation
B. separation of concerns
C. common reuse principle
D. Liskov substitution principle
E. interface segregation principle
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two advantages of using encapsulation in a multi-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Business components inherit behavior from the web container.
B. Complex web container behavior can be hidden behind simple interfaces.
C. Business logic can be modified without modifying objects that depend on it.
D. Database records can be accessed directly from the web tier to improve scalability and
performance.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 What are three web service support features in Java EE? (Choose three.)
A. generating a web service from an MDB
B. generating a Java class from a WSDL file
C. associating a Java class with a WSDL file
D. associating a JMS queue with a WSDL file
E. generating a web service from a stateful session bean
F. generating a web service from a stateless session bean
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.14 You are architecting a new Internet-deployed application and you want to restrict access to parts of the
system for security purposes. Which three security restrictions can be specified in the deployment
descriptor according to the servlet API specification standards? (Choose three.)
A. on page forwarding
B. on encryption methods
C. based on the role name
D. based on the user name
E. based on the URL pattern
F. based on the HTTP method
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.15 A Java EE travel agency application builds flight itineraries and needs to provide runtime
monitoring to external clients. Agency managers need to find out at any given time how many itineraries
have been started but not completed. This information should be made available to managers at runtime
using open-source or commercially available management tools. The instrumentation should be done
with a standard Java EE API. How should you instrument the application?
A. JPA
B. JMX
C. JMS
D. SNMP
Answer: B

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.17 You are designing a company e-Commerce site. The site will be hosted on a single powerful server
that has sufficient CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth so that clustering is not needed. The
architecture must maintain session state including a shopping cart and recent searches. JSP and JPA
have already been selected as the presentation tier and persistence tier implementations, respectively.
What do you recommend as the most appropriate way to maintain session state in the application?
A. an entity bean
B. stateful session beans
C. the HttpSession object
D. a message-driven bean
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two characteristics are NOT important factors in the selection of a web application framework
for a large project? (Choose two.)
A. complexity of the framework
B. degree of usage in the industry
C. availability of a unit test framework
D. reusability of model and view components
E. separation of concerns afforded by the framework
F. level of integration with common logging frameworks
Answer: C,F

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NO.19 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.20 You work for a small IT shop. The developers are responsible for deploying production
applications. All of the connection and resource parameters are distributed in the Java source code. Your
IT shop has a limited infrastructure so there have been few issues with pushing production applications.
Your IT shop has been purchased and is now reselling Java products to customers. You now have
dedicated development, testing, staging, and production environments. A new requirement states that
these applications must support rapid deployment to each environment. What is the best solution.?
A. refactor the Java application to use JNDI names and resource references
B. identify a build engineer that has the responsibility of modifying the constant class for each deployment
C. set your connection properties in a constants class to consolidate connection and resource parameters
D. identify the environment parameters for connection and resources and make them readily available to
developers
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-574
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.3 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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NO.9 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.16 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.20 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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