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Exam Code: EN0-001
Exam Name: ARM (ARM Accredited engineer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 210 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B

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NO.2 A program running on a development board that is connected to a host using a debugger can
access a file on the host by using:
A. Memory mapping
B. Semihosting
C. Polling
D. Virtual I/O
Answer: B

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NO.3 What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A

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NO.4 When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the
ARM EABI requires that the:
A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC), when an interrupt is requested, but is not yet being
handled, it is in which of the following states?
A. Inactive
B. Active
C. Pending
D. Edge-triggered
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which type of storage will the compiler preferentially place frequently accessed variables?
A. Stack
B. Heap
C. Registers
D. Hard disk
Answer: C

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NO.7 A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
Answer: A

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NO.8 In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management
Unit (MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
Answer: B

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12. A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution
time using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of
the following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
Answer: D

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NO.10 A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash - 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM - 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
Answer: A

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NO.11 Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
Answer: A

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Exam Code: IIA-CGAP
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Government Auditing Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 327 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Although not a generally accepted practice by most audit organizations, some may not
comply with audit standards and call the final product reviews or studies. The entire following are
some specific examples where standards may not be used EXCEPT:
A. An "assignment" may have an extremely short deadline, making it virtually impossible to comply
with all appropriate audit standards.
B. The organization doesn't follow the audit standards.
C. Assignments that are strictly tied to compliance with contract terms, regulations, or grant
requirements.
D. The requesting body (legislature, for example) may not want standards to be applied to the
assignment.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The application of the appropriate audit standards is dependent on all of the following issues
EXCEPT:
A. Laws and policies of the audit organization.
B. Regulations
C. Audit requirements
D. External control requirement
Answer: D

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NO.3 The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards
are a model for government audit standards, established and endorsed by the INTOSAI organization,
but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be
used?
A. Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
(INTOSAI)
B. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for
the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution
(SAI)
D. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit
Institution (SAI)
Answer: C

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NO.4 _________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the performance
of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
Answer: C

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NO.5 Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing
commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits
are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A

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NO.6 One mechanism to help ensure the proper application of audit standards is through
____________. The purpose of _______________ is to provide feedback to management on the
effectiveness of the quality control policies and procedures of an organization:
A. An external quality review process
B. An internal quality review process
C. Organizational review process
D. Audit review process
Answer: B

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NO.7 A __________________________ letter is usually developed with either a qualified or
unqualified opinion. Obviously a qualified opinion will warrant significant remedial action by the
audit organization:
A. Opinion letter
B. Offer letter
C. Informal opinion letter
D. Formal opinion letter
Answer: D

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NO.8 Standards must be reviewed and applied appropriately during the conduct of an audit.
Following are some illustrations of situations that may arise during the course of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Qualification
B. Independence
C. Communication
D. Coordination
Answer: D

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NO.9 Many _____________________ are conducted in accordance with established Standards,
INTOSAI, or IFAC standards. The International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
______________________ promulgates standards for government organizations where as the
International Federation of Accountants _________________ provides additional guidance and
standards:
A. Government audits, (IFAC), (INTOSAI)
B. Government audits, (INTOSAI), (IFAC)
C. (IFAC), (INTOSAI), Government audits
D. (IFAC), Government audits, (INTOSAI)
Answer: B

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NO.10 The purpose of the external quality control review is to determine whether the organization's
internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance
that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed.
A. Quality control, Quantity control
B. Internal quality control system, External quality control
C. External quality control, Internal quality control system
D. Quantity control, Quantity control
Answer: C

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NO.11 Section _________ will detail some specific audit planning steps that are often utilized to
ensure that the appropriate legal and audit standards are applied in ___________:
A. Audit proposals, Audit engagements
B. Audit engagements, II.C.2 (Planning)
C. II.C.2 (Planning), Audit engagements
D. Audit engagements, Audit proposals
Answer: C

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NO.12 Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D

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NO.13 The application of appropriate standards depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The objective of the engagement
B. Availability of information.
C. Legally binding agreement
D. Other mandates or local requirements relevant to the audit organization and the engagement
itself.
Answer: C

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NO.14 All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways
EXCEPT:
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being effectively
used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will be
detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The IIA has developed the Professional Practices Framework (PPF). In general, a framework
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coherent system, it facilitates all of the following to a discipline or profession EXCEPT:
A. Communication skills
B. Application of concepts
C. Consistent development
D. Interpretation and methodologies
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CSTE
Exam Name: Software Certifications (CSTE Certified Software Test Engineer (CSTE))
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Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?
A. QA is part of a complete testing process
B. Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing
C. Testing is part of a complete QA process
D. When Testing is over it becomes QA
Answer: C

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NO.3 Achieving quality requires:
A. Exceeding the customer's expectations
B. Focusing on the customer
C. Meeting all the definitions of quality
D. All the above
E. Understanding the customer's expectations
Answer: D

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NO.4 The essence of a quality internal product is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Improving internal processes
C. Delivering the right product
Answer: A

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8. The purpose of software testing is to____________.
A. Detect the existence of defects
B. Demonstrate that the application works properly
C. Validate the logical design
Answer: A

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9. White Box testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is not known.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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10. Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and code
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between
the
impact of risks and the cost of protective measures.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Name: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler - Business Partner Data Mining Associate Exam)
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NO.1 True or false: auto checking for invalid values can be done on the Type tab in any Source node.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which node can be used to impute (estimate) missing values?
A. Data Audit node
B. Balance node
C. Filler node
D. Reclassify node
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many phases are in the CRISP-DM Process Methodology?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer: C

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NO.4 True or false: association models require all fields used to be defined with the role of both.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will occur if the deployment data has a very different range than the data that was used
in modeling?
A. The model will underpredict.
B. The model will overpredict.
C. The model may overpredict or underpredict.
D. The model nugget will automatically nullify those cases that are out of range .075.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configure permissions for log files at $MAPPED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates and configures you kdc with default cluster values.
C. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment.
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions.
E. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with correct permissions.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two features does Kerberos security add to a Hadoop cluster?
A. Authentication for user access to the cluster against a central server
B. Encryption for data on disk ("at rest")
C. Encryption on all remote procedure calls (RPCs)
D. User authentication on all remote procedure calls (RPcs)
E. Root access to the cluster for users hdfs and mapred but non-root acess clients
Answer: C,D

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10. Which three processes does HDFS High Availability (HA) enable on your cluster?
A. Automatically 'fail over' between NameNodes if one goes down
B. Write data to two clusterssimultaneously
C. Shut one NameNode down for maintenance without halting the cluster
D. Manually 'fail over' between NameNodes
E. Configure unlimited hot standby NameNode.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 In HDFS, you view a file with rw-r--r-- set as its permissions. What does this tell you about the
file?
A. The file cannot be deleted by anyone but the owner
B. The file cannot be deleted by anyone
C. The file cannot be run as a MapReduce job
D. The file’s contents can be modified by the owner, but no-one else
E. As a Filesystem in Userspace (FUSE), HDFS files are available to all user’s on a cluster
regardless of their underlying POSIX permissions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured
to
run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the files by
the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover and
provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for clients to
reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E

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NO.6 A client wants to read a file from HDFS. How does the data get from the DataNodes to the
client?
A. The NameNode reads the blocks from the DataNodes, and caches them. Then, the application
reads the blocks from the NameNode.
B. The application reads the blocks directly from the DataNodes.
C. The blocks are sent to a single DataNode, then the application reads the blocks from that Data
Node.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Compare the hardware requirements of the NameNode with that of the DataNodes in a
Hadoop
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1):
A. The NameNode requires more memory and requires greater disk capacity than the DataNodes.
B. The NameNode and DataNodes should the same hardware configuration.
C. The NameNode requires more memory and no disk drives.
D. The NameNode requires more memory but less disk capacity.
E. The NameNode requires less memory and less disk capacity than the DataNodes.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have a cluster running with the FIFO scheduler enabled. You submit a large job A to the
cluster which you expect to run for one hour. Then, you submit job B to the cluster, which you
expect to run a couple of minutes only. Let’s assume both jobs are running at the same priority.
How does the FIFO scheduler execute the jobs? (Choose 3)
A. The order of execution of tasks within a job may vary.
B. When a job is submitted, all tasks belonging to that job are scheduled.
C. Given jobs A and B submitted in that order, all tasks from job A will be scheduled before all
tasks from job B.
D. Since job B needs only a few tasks, if might finish before job A completes.
Answer: A,B,C

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Total Q&A: 341 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.3 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.5 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

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NO.11 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.19 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.20 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.1 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
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that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
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in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.3 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.4 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
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factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.5 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
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A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
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A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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Exam Code: PC0-001
Exam Name: Peoplecert (ITIL 2011 Foundation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.4 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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Exam Code: EADP10
Exam Name: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less
negative (e.g.from -45 to -28). which way does the data move?'
A.north
B.south
C.east
D.west
Answer: B

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NO.2 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the
exhibit using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys,
respectively. However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the
drop-down list of candidate keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.4 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water
pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the
most likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace
task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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Reference: http://ssl.tamu.edu/courses/frsc652 /lab/gdbase_lab_exercises.pdf (page 3, step 9)

NO.5 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and
represent features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the
difference of their locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed
at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly
align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate
space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to
the data1
Answer: A

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The
output feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.7 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type
supports this function?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://edndoc.esri.com/arcobjects/ 8.3 /TechnicalDocuments/Network/ArcGISNetworkModel/ArcGIS
Network.htm (topic 2.1.2, see the first image)

NO.8 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears
to be overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.9 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a
point feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the
feature class seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far
from the high edge values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the
map file can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/ 9.3 /index.cfm?TopicName=Publishing_optimized_map_ser
vices

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